CCNA 3 v7. This course covers wide area network WAN technologies and quality of service QoS mechanisms used for secure remote access along with the introduction of software-defined networking, virtualization, and automation concepts that support the digitalization of networks. Students gain skills to configure and troubleshoot enterprise networks, and learn to identify and protect against cybersecurity threats. They are introduced to network management tools and learn key concepts of software-defined networking, including controller-based architectures and how application programming interfaces APIs enable network automation.
What term describes adding a value to the packet header, as close to the source as possible, so that the packet matches a defined policy? He has tried everything possible yet to no avail. I keep getting the same message. Have any of you taken this exam yet?
Can you help me? It let me go to original page again. I fail the test on my first attempt. Share Tweet Share Pin it. Related Articles. Inline Feedbacks. View Replies 3. View Replies 1. Hi will you post CCNA3 packet tracer practice skills assessment please? View Replies 2. Shakeel Sadool.
I have the skill exam for CCNA 3 v7. Admin, please get in touch with me! View Replies 5. View Replies 8. Looking for someone who can show me how to do it. You are going to send email to. Move Comment. Modules 3 — 5: Network Security Exam Answers. Explain how single-area OSPF operates in both point-to-point and broadcast multiaccess networks. Module 3: Network Security Concepts.We will update answers for you in the shortest time.
Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network? Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery?
What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals? Choose three. A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement? Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor routers and establish neighbor adjacency?
Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection? A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need? A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network.
The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use debuggers? Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server.
What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server? The command to do this would be R2 config-if ip nat outside. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices.
Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet? A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer.
What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation? Which address or addresses represent the inside global address? If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, how would the host gain access to the client image?
A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2?
The network administrator that has the IP address of The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Explanation: The first two lines of the ACL allow host The fourth line of the ACL denies any other type of traffic to the server from any source IP address. The last line of the ACL permits anything else in case there are other servers or devices added to the Large enterprises depend heavily on the smooth operation of their network infrastructures.
This is why networking professionals are vital to every organization and those with networking skills can land a great job and set their sights on a rewarding career!
This third course in the 3-course CCNA series describes the architectures and considerations related to designing, securing, operating, and troubleshooting enterprise networks. The third course in the CCNA curriculum describes the architectures and considerations related to designing, securing, operating, and troubleshooting enterprise networks.
This course covers wide area network WAN technologies and quality of service QoS mechanisms used for secure remote access along with the introduction of software-defined networking, virtualization, and automation concepts that support the digitalization of networks.
Students gain skills to configure and troubleshoot enterprise networks, and learn to identify and protect against cybersecurity threats. They are introduced to network management tools and learn key concepts of software-defined networking, including controller-based architectures and how application programming interfaces APIs enable network automation.
Our website is made possible by displaying online advertisements to our visitors. Please consider supporting us by disabling your ad blocker. Ad Blocker Detected Our website is made possible by displaying online advertisements to our visitors. Modules 3 — 5: Network Security Exam Answers.We will update answers for you in the shortest time. Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website.
The IT department is reporting that a company web server is receiving an abnormally high number of web page requests from different locations simultaneously. Which type of security attack is occurring? What type of malware has the primary objective of spreading across the network?
What commonly motivates cybercriminals to attack networks as compared to hactivists or state-sponsored hackers? Explanation: Cybercriminals are commonly motivated by money. Hackers are known to hack for status. Cyberterrorists are motivated to commit cybercrimes for religious or political reasons. Which type of hacker is motivated to protest against political and social issues?
Explanation: Hackers are categorized by motivating factors. Hacktivists are motivated by protesting political and social issues.
Explanation: A ping sweep is a tool that is used during a reconnaissance attack. Other tools that might be used during this type of attack include a ping sweep, port scan, or Internet information query. A reconnaissance attack is used to gather information about a particular network, usually in preparation for another type of network attack. In what type of attack is a cybercriminal attempting to prevent legitimate users from accessing network services? Explanation: In a DoS or denial-of-service attack, the goal of the attacker is to prevent legitimate users from accessing network services.
Which requirement of secure communications is ensured by the implementation of MD5 or SHA hash generating algorithms? Many modern networks ensure authentication with protocols, such as HMAC.
If an asymmetric algorithm uses a public key to encrypt data, what is used to decrypt it? Explanation: When an asymmetric algorithm is used, public and private keys are used for the encryption. Either key can be used for encryption, but the complementary matched key must be used for the decryption. For example if the public key is used for encryption, then the private key must be used for the decryption. Refer to the exhibit. Choose two. Explanation: The permit The two ACEs of permit Additional filtering can be provided for protocol types.
What type of ACL offers greater flexibility and control over network access? Explanation: The two types of ACLs are standard and extended. Both types can be named or numbered, but extended ACLs offer greater flexibility.We will update answers for you in the shortest time.
Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website. Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? Choose three. Only routers within an area share link-state information. This allows OSPF to scale in a hierarchical fashion with all areas that connect to a backbone area. Explanation: Regardless of which OSPF area a router resides in, the adjacency database, routing table, and forwarding database are unique for each router.
The link-state database lists information about all other routers within an area and is identical across all OSPF routers participating in that area.
CCNA 3 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full – Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation
Which step does an OSPF-enabled router take immediately after establishing an adjacency with another router? A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2.
By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected? Explanation: Cisco IOS automatically modifies the dead interval to four times the hello interval. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers? Explanation: The dead timer 20 seconds on R1 expires before the next hello packet from R2 25 seconds.
To establish a neighbor adjacency two OSPF routers will exchange hello packets. Which two values in the hello packets must match on both routers? Choose two. Explanation: The hello and dead interval timers contained in a hello packet must be the same on neighboring routers in order to form an adjacency.
The default priority for all OSPF routers is 1 but it can be manually altered to any value 0 to When an OSPF network is converged and no network topology change has been detected by a router, how often will LSU packets be sent to neighboring routers? Explanation: After all LSRs have been satisfied for a given router, the adjacent routers are considered synchronized and in a full state. Updates LSUs are sent to neighbors only under the following conditions:.
This address is not included in the routing table and is not defined by the network command.CCNAv7 SRWE Packet Tracer Skills Assessment Part 1
If a router ID that is configured through the router-id command is not available, OSPF routers next use the highest IP address available on a loopback interface, as loopbacks used as router IDs are also not routable addresses. Lacking either of these alternatives, an OSPF router will use the highest IP address from its active physical interfaces. Although the router ID is contained within OSPF messages when router adjacencies are being established, it has no bearing on the actual convergence process.
CCNA 3 v7 Free EXAM ANSWERS and Skills Exam 2020
The first choice is the manually configured router ID with the router-id command. If the router ID is not manually configured, the router will choose the highest IPv4 address of the configured loopback interfaces. Finally if no loopback interfaces are configured, the router chooses the highest active IPv4 address of its physical interfaces. A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router:.
The area number is located at the end of the network statement. The cost of a link can be modified in the interface configuration mode.We will update answers for you in the shortest time. Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website. A network administrator wants to examine the active NAT translations on a border router.
Which command would perform the task? Refer to the exhibit. From the perspective of R1, the NAT router, which address is the inside global address? Explanation: There are four types of addresses in NAT terminology.
Inside local address Inside global address Outside local address Outside global address The inside global address of PC1 is the address that the ISP sees as the source address of packets, which in this example is the IP address on the serial interface of R1, If more hosts need translation, then a NAT pool of inside global address or overloading should be configured. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration.
What three things can the administrator verify?
Choose three. Explanation: The show ip nat statistics, show ip nat translationsand debug ip nat commands are useful in determining if NAT is working and and also useful in troubleshooting problems that are associated with NAT. NAT is working, as shown by the hits and misses count. Because there are four misses, a problem might be evident. The standard access list numbered 1 is being used and the translation pool is named NAT as evidenced by the last line of the output.
The PC is sending a request to the web server. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented? Explanation: The output shows that there are two inside global addresses that are the same but that have different port numbers. The only time port numbers are displayed is when PAT is being used. The same output would be indicative of PAT that uses an address pool. PAT with an address pool is appropriate when more than 4, simultaneous translations are needed by the company.
Explanation: From the perspective of users behind NAT, inside global addresses are used by external users to reach internal hosts. Inside local addresses are the addresses assigned to internal hosts. Outside global addresses are the addresses of destinations on the external network.
Outside local addresses are the actual private addresses of destination hosts behind other NAT devices. Choose two. Explanation: Static NAT is a one-to-one mapping between an inside local address and an inside global address. By using static NAT, external devices can initiate connections to internal devices by using the inside global addresses.
The NAT devices will translate the inside global address to the inside local address of the target host. Explanation: Dynamic NAT uses a pool of inside global addresses that are assigned to outgoing sessions. If there are more internal hosts than public addresses in the pool, then an administrator can enable port address translation with the addition of the overload keyword.
With port address translation, many internal hosts can share a single inside global address because the NAT device will track the individual sessions by Layer 4 port number. Which source address is being used by router R1 for packets being forwarded to the Internet? Explanation: The source address for packets forwarded by the router to the Internet will be the inside global address of This is the address that the internal addresses from the Or to flip the question, how much would a good World Series have helped his value.
Three straight years of stellar regular-season and extensive postseason innings bolster his resume. Of this free-agent class, the leader in WAR (using both Baseball-Reference.
Man, what a run the Royals had, huh. Three of the top seven free agents are theirs. He and the Indians have such a good thing going. To be clear: Whoever signs him controls him for at least six years. Zack Cozart, SS: What to make of a guy who put up his best year, by far, in his age-31 season. He came back strong in his first full year after Tommy John surgery. He too rebounded nicely after missing 2016 due to TJ surgery. He has come a long way since the Yankees traded him to the Twins for Miguel Sulbaran in 2014.
The last time he explored the market, George W. Bush was the U. He opted out of his Baltimore deal after a great year with the Orioles. Yet another returnee from TJ surgery and another opt-out guy he enjoyed a Rockies renaissance before tiring. His health now has to be a concern after two straight years with heavy disabled-list time. One of many intriguing relievers out there, his age (37) works against him.
He should earn the most of the many southpaw relievers available.
CCNA 3 v7 Modules 1 – 2: OSPF Concepts and Configuration Exam Answers
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